According to the Associated Press today, France is considering a process of divorce by mutual consent bypassing judicial oversight or intervention. France's Social Affairs Minister Dominique Bertinotti reports that more than half of divorces in France are uncontested. She says that divorces could be handled by court clerks who are "highly trained in the law." Bertinotti reportedly posited that "simplification is a good thing."
"Uncontested"--what does that mean? Does it mean that a couple truly agrees upon the property divistion? Does it mean that each of the parties is truly aware of the nature and extent of marital property? Does it mean that each of the parties has been fully informed of his or her property rights, right to support, rights concerning child custody, parenting time and support? Does it mean that each of the parties is operating without undue coercion or duress and in the absence of domestic abuse? By domestic abuse, I do not mean to limit that term to physical abuse only.